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In the previous segment we saw that the 
Schrodinger equation for an infinite 

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potential well without even writing down 
the Schrodinger equation itself. 

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So of course it doesn't always happen 
this way, so for more complicated 

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potentials we actually have to do some 
calculations, and then this segment I'm 

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going to present an example of a general 
method actually that is used to solve the 

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Schrodinger equation, and also consider 
the so-called finite potential well. 

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So the, potential that we're actually 
going to study is, is illustrated here so 

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here is, formal sort of mathematical 
expression for this potential and this is 

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the, it's a illustration so, for, x. 
So this is one dimensional potential. 

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For X is greater than A over 2 or smaller 
than minus A over 2. 

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We have a finite wall, if you want, with 
a height of U naught and in between minus 

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A over 2 and A over 2 we have a potential 
well. 

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And so the question that we are going to 
be interested in is whether or not we 

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have levels, energy levels, allowed 
states within the potential well, which 

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implies that the energy of these states 
must be smaller than this maximum U 

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naught but larger than 0. 
So these are positive energies here in 

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this formulation. 
Now, clearly we have three regions that 

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appear in this potential. 
So one region will be to the left of the 

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point minus A over 2. 
The second region, which is the potential 

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well itself, will be between minus A over 
2 and A over 2. 

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And the third region is X greater than A 
over 2 Two. 

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And for each of the originals, we can 
write down the corresponding Schrodinger 

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equation. 
Let's say, for the regions one and three, 

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for absolute value of x greater than a 
over two we have the kinetic energy plus 

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the potential energy u naught is equal to 
the energy that we're actually looking 

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for e times psi of X. 
And for the region of the potential well 

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we formally have just the free 
Schrodinger equation since the potential 

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here is equal to 0. 
Now to solve this Schrodinger equation 

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the main challenge in some sense of 
solving the Schrodinger equation is 

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actually would be to match the solutions 
in different regions. 

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And by match I mean the full link. 
We're going to demand that both the wave 

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function itself and it's first derivative 
are continuous everywhere. 

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In particular in these matching points 
minus a over 2 and a over 2. 

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And so here I have formally represented 
the as so, so plus zero basically means 

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to the right of a certain point. 
And minus zero means to the left of a 

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certain point. 
And the reason one, our weight function 

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or let's say its derivative to be 
continuous is because if we did not have 

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this continuity. 
Let's say in this point if we let's say 

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solve our Schrodinger equation three and 
origin two and department we don't bother 

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to mention them, then, in general so our 
way function in this case is going to be 

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00:03:04,848 --> 00:03:12,382
something like this let's say. 
And there will be a jump, find a jump. 

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In, well, in the wave function is 
derivative, and if we calculate the 

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second digit which is here, it uses the 
jump, we're going to have an infinite 

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secondary digit which will be, which 
wouldn't be able to compensate in our 

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Schrodinger equation. 
So there will be essentially a delta 

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function coming up from this, contiu-, 
from this discontinuity, and, well, we 

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00:03:34,538 --> 00:03:39,173
don't have it in our problem. 
In our problem we don't have a delta 

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problem. 
So, therefore, we must demand that the 

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wave function is derivative so in our 
continuous everywhere. 

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And it turns out that this along with 
these, with this condition would be would 

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be enough to find the constraints which 
will determine the actual energy level. 

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So now the latter constraint namely that 
the wave function should decay at 

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infinity is essentially, physically a 
meaningful constraint. 

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So if we were looking for a bound state 
of our particle, so we want the 

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00:04:10,34 --> 00:04:16,140
probability of finding this particle at 
infinity to be zero. 

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And we want the probability to be sort of 
localized in the vicinity of the 

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potential. 
And so this is where the second 

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constraint is coming from. 
Now to simplify this equation Ev equals U 

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00:04:28,348 --> 00:04:33,974
naught is that, well we can rewrite it. 
It, let's say the first on we can 

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introduce a new parameter gamma, which 
is, a 2m over x squared, U-not, minus, 

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00:04:41,242 --> 00:04:50,140
epsilon minus energy E, so let me 
actually called gamma squared, 

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And, well, we can, we an just put the 
energy, in, in the left-hand side and 

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multiply everything by minus. 
2 m over h squared, and this would give 

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rise to the full equation. 
Psy 2 prime minus gamma psi, gamma 

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squared psi is equal to zero. 
And for the second equation we can 

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introduce the parameter is the key, and, 
we're going to have this with psi 2k plus 

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00:05:17,38 --> 00:05:23,450
k squared cy equals to zero. 
So let me just rewrite in this slightly 

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nicer way. 
So here are basically the two equations I 

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just wrote and here are the parameters. 
Both these equations are actually very 

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simple equations so, this one has a 
solution either power plus minus gamma x. 

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00:05:36,890 --> 00:05:40,320
You can just plug it in and see the well, 
the the inevitable of the exponential and 

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the exponential is the exponential itself 
and well, clearly is going to satisfy 

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this equation. 
And the second equation well which is the 

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00:05:48,122 --> 00:05:53,18
free Schrodinger equation, unsurprisingly 
gives us just plain waves as the solution 

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00:05:53,18 --> 00:05:57,530
either problem, plu-, plus minus i K 
times x. 

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00:05:57,530 --> 00:06:00,580
So and again, the challenge is going to 
be to match those guys in each of these 

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points, minus a over 2 and a over 2. 
Now, it's not really necessary for the 

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solution of the problem but, I would like 
to use the symmetry of the problem here 

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and this would give me an excuse in some 
sense to introduce the symmetry concepts 

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and quantum mechanics in a much Broader 
context. 

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So namely I would like to point out the 
following fact. 

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if, the Hamiltonian commutes with an 
operator a, this can be an operator of 

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any physical quantity, now, then the 
solutions to the Schrodinger equation, 

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that is an equation which is an 
Eigenvalue problem for, for the 

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Hamiltonian. 
So then, the solutions can also be chosen 

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00:06:44,922 --> 00:06:49,992
to have definite value of 8, which means 
that the same solutions are going to be 

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00:06:49,992 --> 00:06:54,828
the Eigen states of the Eigenvalue 
problem for this operator E whatever it 

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00:06:54,828 --> 00:07:00,560
is. 
So in general if the 2 operators were not 

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00:07:00,560 --> 00:07:05,695
to commute, so I wouldn't necessarily be 
able, have been able to find As a set of 

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way of function which would both A and E, 
the energy definite. 

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So, but in the presence of a symmetry, 
you want this possibility exist. 

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Now, what does that have to do with our 
problem? 

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So in our problem, we have a sort of 
rather obvious Symmetry which is 

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essential inversion symmetry of the 
potentials of a flip x if it x goes to 

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minus x. 
So the potential is unchanged and so the 

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00:07:33,286 --> 00:07:37,688
kinetic energy also doesn't change so its 
a second derivative with respect to x, so 

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therefore the Hamiltonian one can 
determine that Hamiltonian is indeed 

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symmetric or invariant under this. 
Under this operation, and so for 

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[INAUDIBLE] that forces this inversion is 
this operator i, which basically thinks 

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adds to minuses. 
And this operature has two item values 

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the barrier. 
Either plus or minus 1. 

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00:08:01,760 --> 00:08:05,918
So the functions feature high end 
function of this inversion operature 

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00:08:05,918 --> 00:08:09,750
either even or odd function of the 
coordinate. 

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00:08:09,750 --> 00:08:13,782
And so what, what we are saying in this, 
sort of, very complicated language is 

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that we can find the Eigenstates of our 
problem the solutions to the Schrodinger 

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equation which would be either, odd or 
even functions. 

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00:08:23,650 --> 00:08:26,90
That's all we are saying and, well, 
another statement that I would like to 

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make is that if there is a symmetry in 
the problem, you'd better use it. 

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00:08:29,630 --> 00:08:33,446
So it always simplifies things. 
Never makes things more complicated, 

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always simplifies things. 
And so that's what I'm going to do here 

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as well. 
So in general if I were to ignore, this 

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symmetry. 
So the solution, to the[UNKNOWN] 

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equations we just discussed in this, 
region of the will would be arbitrary 

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00:08:45,752 --> 00:08:51,638
linear combination of two plane wave. 
Now I'm saying so see there is this 

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00:08:51,638 --> 00:08:55,408
symmetry in the problem. 
So I would like instead of just having 

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00:08:55,408 --> 00:08:59,56
this arbitrary efficiency c 1 and c 2, I 
would like to consider separately 

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00:08:59,56 --> 00:09:05,5
solutions with definite parity. 
Either even functions which is basically 

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00:09:05,5 --> 00:09:11,810
cosign with the c 1 equals to c 2 or a 
sign which is a node function. 

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00:09:11,810 --> 00:09:16,804
In which case c1 is equal to a complex 
conjugate. 

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and these are purely measuring constants. 
So, in the following I am going to 

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specifically consider to focus on this 
even solution just for simplicity but you 

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00:09:24,371 --> 00:09:27,556
can find the general analysis This in a 
number of books so this is the problem we 

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00:09:27,556 --> 00:09:32,909
are solving by the way. 
Is a absolutely classical problem, but 

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00:09:32,909 --> 00:09:37,319
classical not in the sense of classical 
physics, but in the sense that it appears 

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00:09:37,319 --> 00:09:43,400
in just about every course or every book 
on quantum physics. 

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00:09:43,400 --> 00:09:47,195
Now having determined the solution we're 
interested in, in region two and now have 

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00:09:47,195 --> 00:09:50,645
to 
To determine the solutions in regions one 

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00:09:50,645 --> 00:09:53,350
and three that we're going to be focusing 
on. 

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00:09:53,350 --> 00:09:57,112
And by the way, you, the symmetry of the 
problem, we can actually pick just one of 

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these regions. 
So we don't really have to use, in this 

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00:10:00,707 --> 00:10:04,869
case, both matching points, we can do 
well just using one point. 

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00:10:04,869 --> 00:10:09,221
And as we discussed, a general solution 
to the Schrodinger equation, to this 

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00:10:09,221 --> 00:10:13,573
equation in the region three is given by 
a linear combination of these two 

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00:10:13,573 --> 00:10:18,265
exponentials, which are no longer 
oscillating functions, but are functions, 

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00:10:18,265 --> 00:10:23,433
that, are either, decaying, a rapidly 
decaying function, or a rapidly, growing 

136
00:10:23,433 --> 00:10:30,58
function. 
And, so to, simplify to find the proper 

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00:10:30,58 --> 00:10:33,649
solution in the region three, let's say, 
for x is greater than a over 2 We have 

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00:10:33,649 --> 00:10:37,696
recalled, the constraint and infinity 
namely that the wave function must remain 

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00:10:37,696 --> 00:10:42,110
finite. 
Well actually I should correct. 

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00:10:42,110 --> 00:10:46,340
It should actually go to zero as we go to 
infinity. 

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00:10:46,340 --> 00:10:50,244
So otherwise if we don't impost this 
constraint, if we allow, in this case 

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00:10:50,244 --> 00:10:56,740
this, churum in the wave function, the 
probability of a particle to leak. 

143
00:10:56,740 --> 00:10:59,707
in some sense to infinity would explode 
exponentially, which doesn't make any 

144
00:10:59,707 --> 00:11:03,573
sense. 
So therefore we simply draw the B term in 

145
00:11:03,573 --> 00:11:09,117
this in this wave function, and only 
we'll focus on the on this wave function 

146
00:11:09,117 --> 00:11:14,940
in the region 3. 
So now we're in, in a position to 

147
00:11:14,940 --> 00:11:20,250
actually match the solutions. 
We know the solution in each region. 

148
00:11:20,250 --> 00:11:25,780
So here I do present a solution in all of 
the regions, including region one. 

149
00:11:25,780 --> 00:11:28,366
So this guy's for region one. 
This guy's for region two, and this guy's 

150
00:11:28,366 --> 00:11:31,505
for region three. 
But as I said, due to symmetry we can 

151
00:11:31,505 --> 00:11:35,770
focus on only one matching point. 
And this is what I'm going to do. 

152
00:11:35,770 --> 00:11:39,991
So now we can ride the wave function to 
left at this point, which is going to be 

153
00:11:39,991 --> 00:11:44,279
c times cosign key a over two and, it 
must be equal to the way function to the 

154
00:11:44,279 --> 00:11:52,36
right, which is this guy, which is a 
ethopro minus, gamma, a over two. 

155
00:11:52,36 --> 00:11:56,836
So this is the first matching condition 
and the second matching condition is 

156
00:11:56,836 --> 00:12:01,158
going to be the derivative of this 
function. 

157
00:12:01,158 --> 00:12:05,733
So the derivative of cosine is minus 
sine, so were going to have minus C times 

158
00:12:05,733 --> 00:12:11,760
k sine of k a over 2, to the left. 
Must be equal to minus A gamma e to the 

159
00:12:11,760 --> 00:12:18,714
power minus gamma a over 2, to the right. 
And now what I'm going to do, I'm 

160
00:12:18,714 --> 00:12:22,0
going to divide so let me call this 
equation, equation number two. 

161
00:12:22,0 --> 00:12:24,790
And this is going to be equation, 
equation number one. 

162
00:12:24,790 --> 00:12:30,570
And so if we divide equation number two 
by equation number one. 

163
00:12:30,570 --> 00:12:35,70
Which we're allowed to do, what we're 
going to get in the in the left hand 

164
00:12:35,70 --> 00:12:42,210
side, we're going to have k times sine or 
a cosine is a tangent of ka over 2. 

165
00:12:42,210 --> 00:12:45,806
And in the right hand side, so the 
minuses will go away and the exponentials 

166
00:12:45,806 --> 00:12:49,400
are going to go away, we're going to get 
Just gamma. 

167
00:12:49,400 --> 00:12:53,740
So here I have the same equation written 
a exclusively in a nice way. 

168
00:12:53,740 --> 00:12:57,400
And also I recall the definitions of 
gamma and k, that I made in a previous 

169
00:12:57,400 --> 00:13:00,617
slide. 
So k itself is the square root of 2mE 

170
00:13:00,617 --> 00:13:03,602
over h squared. 
And the energy is really what we are 

171
00:13:03,602 --> 00:13:06,352
looking for. 
And energy appears both in the left hand 

172
00:13:06,352 --> 00:13:10,50
side and in the right hand side, in a 
rather non-linear way. 

173
00:13:10,50 --> 00:13:14,80
And as a matter of fact there is no way, 
we cannot solve this equation 

174
00:13:14,80 --> 00:13:18,744
analytically. 
So this is, no linear algebraic equation 

175
00:13:18,744 --> 00:13:24,200
and it doesn't have a formal sort of 
closed solution, that is four. 

176
00:13:24,200 --> 00:13:27,350
So which by the way is quite amazing that 
the problem is simple as this finite 

177
00:13:27,350 --> 00:13:30,438
potential. 
Well in one dimensional quantum mechanics 

178
00:13:30,438 --> 00:13:33,462
which is just about the simplest problem 
you can think of It cannot really be 

179
00:13:33,462 --> 00:13:36,726
solved, so this gives you something, it 
tells you something about the complexity 

180
00:13:36,726 --> 00:13:41,500
now, of the technical complexity of the 
Schrodinger equation. 

181
00:13:41,500 --> 00:13:45,770
Now to precede further towards a bit of 
numerical analysis or asymptotic 

182
00:13:45,770 --> 00:13:49,627
analysis. 
It is always a good idea, in such cases, 

183
00:13:49,627 --> 00:13:53,958
to get rid of the physical, dimensional 
quantities such as energy or this 

184
00:13:53,958 --> 00:13:58,431
potential height which have physical 
dimension and move to dimensionless 

185
00:13:58,431 --> 00:14:03,231
parameters. 
And so here the nature of the 

186
00:14:03,231 --> 00:14:07,787
dimensionless parameters is going to be 
Well, the argument of this tangent which 

187
00:14:07,787 --> 00:14:13,630
is EE over 2. 
And the parameter introduced here. 

188
00:14:13,630 --> 00:14:19,545
Which is basically to be able to write 
our equation in a nice and dimensionless 

189
00:14:19,545 --> 00:14:22,865
way. 
The reason why dealing with 

190
00:14:22,865 --> 00:14:27,610
dimension-less quantities is much more 
convenient than with. 

191
00:14:27,610 --> 00:14:31,858
quantities in case it has non-trivial 
physical dimensions is because, for the 

192
00:14:31,858 --> 00:14:35,830
former, we can talk about them being 
large or small. 

193
00:14:35,830 --> 00:14:40,360
So we can see that something is small or 
large as comparing it with one. 

194
00:14:40,360 --> 00:14:44,86
While for a dimensional quantity it 
doesn't really make sense to talk about 

195
00:14:44,86 --> 00:14:47,812
large or small unless we Specify what we 
actually mean by that for instance is one 

196
00:14:47,812 --> 00:14:52,247
meter large or small. 
Well does we don't know unless we compare 

197
00:14:52,247 --> 00:14:55,82
with the lets say size of an atom and 
which case it's clearly large or with the 

198
00:14:55,82 --> 00:14:59,700
size with the size of the universe, in 
which case one meter is really small. 

199
00:14:59,700 --> 00:15:05,706
So here one, once we get these parameter 
si it allows us to define basically a 

200
00:15:05,706 --> 00:15:10,290
deep. 
And shallow potential so we will call the 

201
00:15:10,290 --> 00:15:14,385
potential deep if this guide, the, of 
this squad squared is much larger than 

202
00:15:14,385 --> 00:15:18,480
one and the potential is going to be 
called shallow if it's much smaller than 

203
00:15:18,480 --> 00:15:23,773
one. 
And by the way, in the, full length two 

204
00:15:23,773 --> 00:15:28,603
video segments we're going to be focusing 
on, shallow potentials which are well 

205
00:15:28,603 --> 00:15:33,888
mottled by delta function. 
So, naively you would say, you would 

206
00:15:33,888 --> 00:15:37,320
think, that delta function is something 
which is actually very deep because it 

207
00:15:37,320 --> 00:15:40,908
goes to infinity if you, approach, x 
equals zero, let's say if we're talking 

208
00:15:40,908 --> 00:15:46,586
about potential u of x, which is let's 
say minus u, delta of x. 

209
00:15:46,586 --> 00:15:52,46
But, well, delta of x and potential delta 
of x is really, it means, to represent, a 

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Potential with the very with the very 
small radius and the radius in order for 

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the integral the delta function be equal 
to 1 so the radius of the potential, the 

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size of the potential should scale with 
the depth of the potential as so. 

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So as a goes to zero, well you not is 
sort of proportional to y and 1 over a. 

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But here we see that the definition of 
the shallow potential is u naught a 

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squared times m over a squared must be 
much more than one which means that the 

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Delta potential is actually closer to 
shallow potential which is an important 

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observation and will take advantage of 
later on. 

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00:16:35,610 --> 00:16:39,764
But in its stage let me just say that we 
have these two special cases and even 

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though we cannot solve exactly this 
equation, for arbitrary side, we can do 

220
00:16:44,655 --> 00:16:52,10
two separate analysis of this equation in 
such two special cases. 

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00:16:52,10 --> 00:16:56,276
And here, I present this analysis. 
So this is again the equation, the same 

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equation, so the red tangent of x is 
plauded here, so basically applauded the 

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functions on the left of this equation 
and on the right of this equation. 

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00:17:06,700 --> 00:17:12,590
And you see by the way that when x 
becomes larger than psi. 

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So this right hand side becomes purely an 
imaginary constant which implies that 

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there is definitely no solution to this 
equation as the tangent here does not 

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become measured. 
So so it makes sense only to plot the 

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well the this function for a axis smaller 
than psi. 

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So here I have an example of deep 
potential where I say a set psi to 220 

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00:17:38,61 --> 00:17:42,408
and so I have all these red, red curves 
corresponding to the tangent and this 

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00:17:42,408 --> 00:17:47,169
blue curve corresponds to the right hand 
side and where, when, wherever I see it 

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00:17:47,169 --> 00:17:56,428
crossing between these two guys, so let's 
see, here, here or here or here, etc. 

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00:17:56,428 --> 00:17:59,849
So, I have levels. 
In this case, I can count the number of 

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00:17:59,849 --> 00:18:03,988
levels that are allowed in this quanta. 
Well, one, two, three, four, five, six, 

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00:18:03,988 --> 00:18:08,566
seven levels are allowed. 
Well for the symmetric wave functions if 

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00:18:08,566 --> 00:18:12,196
size equal to 20. 
Now lets consider relatively shallow 

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00:18:12,196 --> 00:18:16,510
potential that this on the other hand, so 
lets say with si equals 1. 

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00:18:16,510 --> 00:18:20,719
In this case I only have to plot this 
functions for x as more than 1 and there 

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00:18:20,719 --> 00:18:26,94
is just 1 crossing. 
Between the blue curve and the red curve, 

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00:18:26,94 --> 00:18:31,450
which means that there is just one single 
level in the shallow potential well. 

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00:18:31,450 --> 00:18:34,852
Which by the way is a very important 
result that we're going to confirm on the 

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00:18:34,852 --> 00:18:37,930
case of a one dimensional delta 
potential, and we're going to see how 

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00:18:37,930 --> 00:18:41,913
this result is modified in higher 
dimension. 

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00:18:43,130 --> 00:18:46,670
Now, the last comment I'm going to make 
is that in principal I could have 

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00:18:46,670 --> 00:18:50,390
continued this analysis of this 
self-consistency equation and there's a 

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00:18:50,390 --> 00:18:54,170
lot to do to determine the actual 
numerical value of the energy levels to 

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00:18:54,170 --> 00:19:01,940
see what happens with the anti-symmetric 
levels with the old wave functions. 

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00:19:01,940 --> 00:19:05,905
And I'm not going to do this right now in 
the lecture because admittedly, it's 

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probably not the most exciting thing in 
quantum mechanics so I will encourage you 

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00:19:10,53 --> 00:19:14,689
to take a look at various text books and 
other lectures online, for example these 

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00:19:14,689 --> 00:19:22,764
set of lectures by professor Michael 
Fowler at University of Virginia. 

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00:19:22,764 --> 00:19:27,769
and also you will see a few problems 
going up on this solution in your 

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00:19:27,769 --> 00:19:32,440
homework. 
So you will have a chance to look into 

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this problem in more detail and 
understand the solution at a deeper 

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level. 

